Whoever has to value levered firms, also has to be able to value unlevered firms. Both are mutually conditional.
By itself, this claim does not shed any light. It should be understood that if a levered firm is spoken of without naming any further details, then that remains unclear. Are we dealing with a heavily or only moderately levered firm? Will the firm’s debt increase, or are the responsible managers planning to reduce the firm’s credit volume? In contrast to a levered firm in which this must all be explained in detail, the circumstances of an unlevered firm are clear and simple. When we speak of an unlevered firm, we mean a firm, which will not have debts today, nor anytime in the future. Of course it is difficult to believe that there are actually such firms in our world. But this—no doubt fully correct assessment—does not matter here. All we want to state is that what we mean by an unlevered firm is completely straightforward, while by a levered firm it is not so clear without further information.
3.1.1 Valuation Equation
We assume in the following that it is possible to successfully come up with the required adjustment equations and will actively attempt to do so ourselves as best we can. Under this condition, the cost of capital of the totally equity-financed firm can be considered to be known. We assume that the evaluator knows the unlevered firm’s conditional expected free cash flows \( \operatorname *{\mathrm {E}}\left [\widetilde {\mathit {FCF}}^u_s|\mathcal {F}_t\right ]\) for time s = t + 1, …, T.
The reader should notice that we use the cash flows after corporate income tax in our definition of cost of capital. Therefore, \(k^{E,u}_t\) are variables after corporate income tax, too. The question, how we can defer from these any cost of capital before tax is not our concern, since we do not investigate how the value of a company changes with a changing of the tax rate. Although possibly time dependent, our tax rates are fixed once and for all today. Nevertheless, if anyone tries to determine the cost of capital before tax he cannot operate on grounds of our theory since it does not tell anything about how the value of a firm changes with the tax rates.
The valuation of the unlevered firm is absolutely unproblematic under these conditions.
We do not have to further involve ourselves here with the proof of the assertion. We already handled it in a generalized form in Sect.
2.3.3 and do not need to bore our readers here by repeating ourselves.
1
3.1.2 Weak Auto-Regressive Cash Flows
In Theorem
3.1 we determined a valuation equation for unlevered firms that the evaluator can only use if she knows the cost of equity of the unlevered firm. This condition can only very rarely be counted upon in practice. If the required conditions to use the theorem are not met, then the valuation is anything but a trivial problem.
We must assume that
gt is greater than − 100
% in order to prevent cash flows from having oscillating signs which would be rather unrealistic. It is not necessary to assume that
gt is positive, so shrinking cash flows are not excluded with Assumption
3.1.
We have banned the proof for this theorem to the appendix.
The last proposition shows that the expected capital gains of the unlevered firm rate is deterministic
$$\displaystyle \begin{aligned} \frac{\operatorname*{\mathrm{E}}\left[\widetilde{V}^u_{t+1}|\mathcal{F}_t\right]-\widetilde{V}^u_t}{\widetilde{V}^u_t}= \frac{\left(d^u_{t+1}\right)^{-1}\operatorname*{\mathrm{E}}\left[\widetilde{\mathit{FCF}}^u_{t+1}\right]}{\left(d^u_t\right)^{-1}\widetilde{\mathit{FCF}}^u_t}-1=\frac{d^u_{t}(1+g_{t})}{d^u_{t+1}} -1 \end{aligned}$$
and is zero in particular if the dividend-price ratio is constant and the growth rate is zero.
Conclusions from Weak Auto-Regressive Cash Flows: Discount Rates
We had already made it clear in the introduction that for the case under certainty, the returns and not the yields present the appropriate means of determining the value of cash flows. Now we take up the question as to the relation which exists between returns and discount rates. Let us take a look in order to get a certain idea of the free cash flows of any year you like. Without further assumptions on the capital market, we cannot act as if a claim to this single cash flow will be traded. Otherwise, the owner of a share would have claims to dividends, so to speak, but not to the share price of the security. Nevertheless, the question that we want to ask ourselves is: what price should an investor pay at time t < s for an isolated free cash flow \(\widetilde {\mathit {FCF}}^u_s\)?
Although we have not precisely developed the basic elements of the arbitrage theory, we may make use of the fundamental theorem in terms of an analogous argument. If we can actually value levered as well as unlevered firms with this principle, then this should also be possible for the claim to an isolated cash flow. This cash flow is valued by constituting the expectation in terms of the risk-neutral probability and then discounting it with the riskless rate,
8 $$\displaystyle \begin{aligned} \frac{\operatorname*{\mathrm{E}}\nolimits_Q\left[\widetilde{\mathit{FCF}}^u_{s}|\mathcal{F}_t\right]}{(1+r_f)^{s-t}}\;. \end{aligned}$$
The above expression gives the value of the free cash flows
\(\widetilde {\mathit {FCF}}^u_s\) at time
t. It is immediately noticeable that this valuation formula, albeit extremely elegant, is totally useless: we know next to nothing about the probability measure
Q. We will now turn our attention to a second outcome, which can be gotten from the fact that cash flows are weak auto-regressive. If cash flows are weak auto-regressive, then there is another way to value them which is of interest to us. In order to let that become clear, we must precisely define the term discount rate, which has until now been only vaguely introduced. For that we will make use of a few preliminary considerations.
Under the discount rate
κt we understand that number, which allows the price of the cash flow
\(\widetilde {\mathit {FCF}}^u_{t+1}\) at time
t to be determined. According to our statements up to present, the discount rate
κt shall serve as an instrument to value the single cash flow
\(\widetilde {\mathit {FCF}}^u_{t+1}\), or using the subjective probabilities we must have
$$\displaystyle \begin{aligned} \frac{\operatorname*{\mathrm{E}}\left[\widetilde{\mathit{FCF}}^u_{t+1}|\mathcal{F}_t\right]}{1+\kappa_t}=\frac{\operatorname*{\mathrm{E}}_Q\left[\widetilde{\mathit{FCF}}^u_{t+1}| \mathcal{F}_t\right]}{1+r_f}\;. \end{aligned} $$
(3.3)
Yet, this consideration alone is not sufficient for our purposes. We do not simply want to make use of the discount rates to value cash flows, which are each one single period away from the time of valuation. If we are, for instance, dealing with the valuation of the cash flow
\(\widetilde {\mathit {FCF}}^u_{t+2}\) at time
t, then we want to manage this task with two discount rates, namely with
κt as well as with
κt+1 in just such a way that
$$\displaystyle \begin{aligned} \frac{\operatorname*{\mathrm{E}}\left[\widetilde{\mathit{FCF}}^u_{t+2}| \mathcal{F}_t\right]}{(1+\kappa_t)(1+\kappa_{t+1})}=\frac{\operatorname*{\mathrm{E}}_Q\left[\widetilde{\mathit{FCF}}^u_{t+2}|\mathcal{F}_t\right]}{\left(1+r_f\right)^2} \end{aligned} $$
(3.4)
is valid. But now it is not so unmistakably clear whether
κt is serving the valuation of the cash flow
\(\widetilde {\mathit {FCF}}^u_{t+1}\) or the cash flow
\(\widetilde {\mathit {FCF}}^u_{t+2}\). And we can also no longer assume that the discount rate
κt from Eq. (
3.3) agrees with
κt from Eq. (
3.4).
9 We will thus suggest a definition for the discount rates that takes the cash flows to be valued into consideration and which requires a somewhat more complicated notation.
We stress that this is only one of many conceivable definitions. We could, for instance, also define the discount rates as yields instead of the version we have chosen. If we do not do so, it is due solely to practical considerations.
We can, on the basis of definition (
3.2), clarify the question as to whether the cost of capital
kE, u prove to be appropriate candidates for discount rates of the unlevered cash flows. In answering this question we fall back upon the assumption that the cash flows of the unlevered firm are weak auto-regressive. Cost of capital does not then just only prove itself as appropriate discount rates. It has, much further, the pleasant characteristic that it is independent of the particular cash flow to be valued
\(\widetilde {\mathit {FCF}}^u_s\). This characteristic will later prove itself to be very helpful.
That this theorem follows from the met assumptions can hardly be so easily recognized. Since the proof would demand a fair amount of space and perhaps not even be of interest to every reader, we have banned it to an appendix.
10
Critical readers could suspect that this theorem has to do with a simple application of the definition of the cost of capital. This would most definitely be a wrong conclusion and in order to make it more understandable, we would like to go into it in more detail. Just equating Eq. (
2.8) with Theorem
3.1 leads us in terms of unlevered firms to the result
$$\displaystyle \begin{aligned} \widetilde{V}^u_t=\sum_{s=t+1}^T\frac{\operatorname*{\mathrm{E}}_Q\left[\widetilde{\mathit{FCF}}^u_{s}|\mathcal{F}_t\right]}{\left(1+r_f\right)^{s-t}} =\sum_{s=t+1}^T\frac{\operatorname*{\mathrm{E}}\left[\widetilde{\mathit{FCF}}^u_{s}|\mathcal{F}_t\right]}{\left(1+k^{E,u}_{t}\right)\ldots \left(1+k^{E,u}_{s-1}\right)}\;. \end{aligned}$$
The preceding equation is of little surprise, as it only claims the equivalence of two different ways of calculation: either the risk-neutral probability and the riskless interest rate is used, or the evaluator applies the subjective probability and the (correspondingly) defined cost of capital. Since the cost of capital is now so defined that both expressions give identical values, there is no reason to worry about coming up with equal firm values.
Of surprise, however, is the declaration that not only do the sums agree in the last equation, but the summands as well. This is everything but obvious, as the simple example
$$\displaystyle \begin{aligned} 4+6=3+7 \qquad \text{but } 4\neq 3 \text{ and } 6\neq 7 \end{aligned}$$
shows. The reader should keep both statements (i.e., the identity of the sums as well as the identity of the summands) clearly separate. Our statement is everything but self-evident and is thoroughly in need of a proof.
A First Look at Default
Until now we had purposely not included the case in which the firm to be valued can go bankrupt. But as the company grows, the probability of going into default is increasing.
If the court in charge allows for the commencement of bankruptcy proceedings, the consequences for creditors, suppliers, employees, owners, and managers are determined in detail by the bankruptcy law. As a rule a liquidator is placed in charge of the business affairs and examines how each party’s payment claims can best be settled. The liquidator makes suitable suggestions within a given time frame and tries to get the agreement of the creditors and the court.
There are principally three possibilities. You can try to rehabilitate the firm, that is, to re-establish the profitability through suitable restructuring measures. In order to do this, the creditors must be willing to renounce some of their claims. If that is not feasible, then the insolvent firm can be transferred over to a bail-out firm and the creditors are paid off by the sales proceeds. If such a solution is also not practical, then there is no other option than to close down and liquidate the firm. What then remains is the smaller the faster the breakup of the firm takes place.
In the following we only assume that in determining future cash flows as well as in laying down future financing and investment policies, all conceivable developments were taken into consideration. If all conceivable developments are being spoken of, then that also includes situations in which the firm goes into default or has gone into default.
Unlevered firms can go bankrupt if claims of tax authorities, employees, and the like are not satisfied. Formal insolvency proceedings are regulated differently from one jurisdiction to the other. However, most countries apply similar default triggers. Usually, illiquidity and over-indebtedness are typical default triggers. A company gets illiquid if its net cash flows (i.e., cash flows to equity or CFE) are negative. A company is over-indebted if the value of equity is negative (whereas market as well as book values are being used in this definition).
11 Similarly, e.g., the UK Insolvency Act initiates bankruptcy proceedings if a firm either does not have enough assets to cover its debts (i.e., the value of assets is less than the amount of the liabilities), or it is unable to pay its debts as they fall due.
Let us first concentrate on the case of an unlevered firm. It is tempting to suggest that an unlevered company is illiquid if the owners’ net cash flows turn out to be negative or \(\widetilde {\mathit {FCF}}^u_t(\omega )<0\). But it is clearly apparent that this definition has its pitfalls when used in a DCF context. Why do we have to emphasize this? If net cash flows are positive, the company pays money to the owners. But if not, it is just the other way round: the owners pay money to the company if net cash flows appear to be negative. Now, if a sufficient amount of money is paid to the company, the firm is no longer illiquid. The owners simply rectify the unpleasant situation. Hence, if and only if the owners do not completely comply with their reserve liabilities, one can actually speak of a lack of liquidity of the company.
We hold the following: whenever the owners cannot or do not meet their funding obligations, the company effectively faces illiquidity.
12 However, the mere existence of negative net cash flows does not automatically imply such a run of events. We should therefore speak of the
danger of illiquidity that arises if net cash flows turn out to be negative or
\(\widetilde {\mathit {FCF}}^u_t(\omega )<0\).
Let us now turn to over-indebtedness as the second default trigger. How could this term be interpreted when we look at an unlevered firm? We will characterize such a situation by \(\widetilde {V}^u_t(\omega )<0\). If this condition is fulfilled, from the owner’s point of view continuing the business would be out of the question. It would undoubtedly be appropriate to speak of “not continuable unlevered firms.” However, for systematic reasons we use the terms “in danger of illiquidity” and “in danger of negative equity,” provided the mentioned inequality is met.
The following proposition will show that now over-indebtedness and danger of illiquidity are in the case of unlevered firms merely equivalent. Both default triggers in fact turn out to coincide and it was too much of an effort to distinguish both cases. But it will turn out that in the case of a levered firm things will become much more complicated.
This immediately follows from Proposition
3.2.
Notice that the market value of equity for corporations cannot be negative, since they have limited liability. The market value of non-corporations, say partnerships, can be negative though. This is the reason why we speak only of danger of insolvency instead of insolvency itself. Our theorem mainly discloses how a consistent valuation model even of an unlevered firm has to be built in order to avoid such logical contradictions.
We now have the basic elements of our theory on discounted cash flow. In the following sections it must be shown what can be done with these basic elements.