Let us assume that the investment universe consists of a single risky company share
\(X=(X_t)_{t\in [0, T]}\) and a risk-less bank account
\(B=(B_t)_{t\in [0, T]}\), cf. (
1), (
2). A digital (or binary) European call option on the underlying
X with strike
\(K>0\) is a financial derivative with payoff
\(\mathbbm {1}_{\{X_T\ge K\}}\) at maturity
T. Its Black–Scholes price is given by
$$\begin{aligned} C(t;\,X_t,\,K)&=R_{t,T}\ \Phi (d_-(t;X_t,K)) \\ d_-(t;\,x,K)&:=\frac{\log {\frac{x}{K}}+\left( r-\frac{\sigma ^2}{2}\right) (T-t)}{\sigma \sqrt{T-t}}. \end{aligned}$$
(10)
According to Corollary
5.4 (cf. Browne
1999b, Sect. 4), continuous rebalancing with
$$\begin{aligned} \xi (t;\, X_t,\, K)=\frac{R_{t, T}}{X_t\, \sigma \, \sqrt{T-t}}\ \phi \left( d_-(t;\, X_t,K)\right) \end{aligned}$$
replicates this digital payoff starting from
\(V_0=C(0;\, X_0,K)\) monetary units. By inspection, the initial price
\(V_0=V_0(K)\) is monotonously decreasing with
$$\begin{aligned}\lim _{K\rightarrow 0+}V_0(K)=R_{0, T},\qquad \lim _{K\rightarrow \infty }V_0(K)=0. \end{aligned}$$
Let us assume that a financial investor owns
\(c_0>0\) monetary units at time
\(t=0\) and, by means of an admissible strategy in the investment universe, aims at owning
\(c_T > c_0\) monetary units at time
T. For simplicity, let us exclude intermediate income and consumption. To ensure that the mathematical problem is well posed, one needs to establish in what sense a certain strategy becomes optimal. In Browne (
1999b, Theorem 3.1), the author proved the intriguing fact that replicating
\(c_T\) digital call options with strike
$$\begin{aligned} K^*=X_0 \exp \left\{ \left( r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma ^2\right) T-\sigma \,\sqrt{T}\,\Phi ^{-1}\left( \frac{c_0}{R_{0, T}\,c_T}\right) \right\} \end{aligned}$$
maximizes the objective probability of reaching the goal. This result has an insightful economic interpretation;
\(K^*\) coincides with the break-even point with respect to the strike where a single digital call option costs
\(\frac{c_0}{c_T}\) at time 0. Notably, but also
well known, the magnitude of the hardly ascertainable drift
\(\mu \) does not affect
\(K^*\). In fact, the above expression of
\(K^*\) is only well-defined provided that the argument of
\(\Phi ^{-1}\) is within (0, 1). In our setting, this prerequisite is only violated in the degenerate case
\(c_0 \ge R_{0, T}\,c_T\), i.e., the goal can be super-replicated in terms of the bank account at no risk anyway. The maximized real-world probability of reaching the goal is
$$\begin{aligned} \mathbb {P}\left[ X_T\ge K^*\right] =\Phi \left( \vartheta \sqrt{T}+\Phi ^{-1}\left( \frac{c_0}{R_{0, T}\,c_T}\right) \right) . \end{aligned}$$
For real-world applications, the financial investor has two alternatives; either she buys it over-the-counter or she replicates the digital payoff herself. In the former case, she runs the risk of not getting the promised payoff due to the bankruptcy of the issuer. In the latter case, without further stop-loss measures in place, discrete rebalancing schedules imply the risk of arbitrarily large losses way beyond
\(c_0\) due to the discontinuity of the payoff and, hence, the unbounded delta of the digital option. Notably, the strategy also requires an unlimited credit line at the bank which is collateralized only to an insufficient extent by the company share. Transaction costs exacerbate the situation. By approximating the digital payoff by a classical bull call spread and by diversifying the involved derivatives across several bona fide counterparties, the financial investor manages to deal with the mentioned impediments all the same. From a computational perspective, we lose analytical tractability with increasing degrees of complexity, e.g., additional constraints, more realistic price dynamics, transaction costs, etc. Despite all, and much more crucially, the all-or-nothing feature of the proposed optimal strategy is not feasible in many real-world applications such as traditional pension funds. For obvious reasons, retirement savings are not supposed to be a Bernoulli experiment. Therefore, we will consider further ways to control downward risk in Sect.
8.
This example shows that the probability-maximizing paradigm might be too rigid in the context of goal-based investing as it does not take into consideration the investor’s risk appetite. In the next section, we will discuss optimal policies for risk-averse investors.